Prof. Cranganu, Core 8.2 Geology

Fall 2004, Mid-term Exam

October 18, 2004






MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.



1) The global ocean accounts for nearly __________ percent of Earth's surface.

A) 45 B) 33 C) 66 D) 86 E) 71


2) The idea that continents had moved about the face of Earth, proposed in the early 1900s, was referred to as continental __________.

A) mechanics

B) locomotion

C) drift

D) conveyance

E) tension


3) The thinnest of the three principal units of Earth's interior is the __________.

A) crust B) core C) mantle


4) Which one of the following is NOT one of the solid Earth's principal units?

A) tropopause B) core C) crust D) mantle


5) Which one of the following is NOT one of the four "spheres" that constitute our environment?

A) biosphere

B) lithosphere

C) atmosphere

D) hydrosphere

E) exosphere


6) __________ are the remains or traces of prehistoric life.

A) Inclusions

B) Faults

C) Rocks

D) Fossils

E) Minerals


7) A scientific __________ is a well tested and widely accepted view that scientists agree best explains observable facts.

A) hypothesis

B) idea

C) supposition

D) theory

E) estimate


8) The __________ is a hot, weak zone that is capable of gradual flow located within Earth between the depths of 100 and 350 kilometers.

A) mantle

B) lithosphere

C) crust

D) asthenosphere

E) core


9) Which one of the following is NOT a type of plate boundary?

A) transform fault B) convergent

C) reverse D) divergent


10) A type of plate boundary where plates grind past each other without either generating new crust or consuming old crust is a(n) __________ fault boundary.

A) convergent

B) divergent

C) transform fault

D) reverse

E) parallel


11) The regions where oceanic crust is being consumed into Earth's interior are called __________ zones.

A) ridge

B) subduction

C) end

D) consumption

E) none of the above


12) The accepted age of Earth is about __________ years.

A) 300 million

B) 4.5 billion

C) 6.4 million

D) 3.6 billion

E) 895 million


13) Earth's __________ includes the crust and part of the upper mantle.

A) asthenosphere

B) mantle

C) core

D) lithosphere

E) none of the above


14) According to the plate tectonics model, Earth's rigid outer shell is broken into large slabs called __________.

A) boundaries

B) ridges

C) divergent zones

D) plates

E) convergent zones


15) The constructive processes that alter Earth's surface depend upon Earth's internal __________ as their source of energy.

A) heat

B) tectonics

C) pressure

D) minerals

E) magnetism


16) The science of geology is traditionally divided into two broad areas: physical geology and __________ geology.

A) oceanography

B) mineralogy

C) historical

D) tectonic

E) none of the above


17) Which one of the following is NOT one of the three classes of rocks?

A) amorphous B) igneous C) metamorphic D) sedimentary


18) A scientific __________ is a preliminary, untested explanation of a natural phenomenon.

A) theory

B) hypothesis

C) supposition

D) observation

E) guess


19) The most unreliable (variable) diagnostic property of minerals such as quartz is __________.

A) crystal form

B) luster

C) hardness

D) color

E) specific gravity


20) On Mohs hardness scale, which is the softest mineral?

A) calcite B) feldspar C) quartz D) talc E) apatite


21) The mass of an atom is concentrated in its __________.

A) nucleus B) electron C) isotope D) angstrom E) neutron


22) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of minerals?

A) definite chemical composition

B) either liquid or solid

C) formed by inorganic processes

D) a unique set of physical properties

E) possess a crystalline structure


23) An atom that loses or gains electrons is called a(n) __________.

A) ion B) proton C) isotope D) neutrino E) neutron


24) A(n) __________ has a negative charge and a very small mass.

A) nucleus B) neutron C) proton D) electron E) isotope


25) The building block of the silicate minerals is called the __________.

A) aluminum-silicon tetrahedron

B) silicon-oxygen tetrahedron

C) silicon-oxygen octahedron

D) aluminum-silicon octahedron

E) none of these


26) If the atomic number of an element is 6 and its mass number is 14, how many neutrons are contained in the nucleus?

A) 0 B) 6 C) 84 D) 20 E) 8


27) All silicate minerals contain the elements __________.

A) silicon and magnesium

B) silicon and calcium

C) silicon and oxygen

D) silicon and iron

E) silicon and sodium


28) Each element is defined by the number of __________.

A) isotopes B) neutrons C) protons D) atoms E) nuclei


29) The mass number of an atom is obtained by totaling the number of __________.

A) electrons and neutrons

B) protons and neutrons

C) positrons and neutrinos

D) neutrons and positrons

E) electrons and protons


30) The central region of an atom is called the __________.

A) shell B) neutron C) nucleus D) electron E) proton


31) The tendency of minerals to break along smooth flat surfaces is called __________.

A) streak

B) conchoidal

C) fracture

D) polyhedral

E) cleavage


32) Isotopes of the same element differ in the number of __________.

A) ions B) protons C) electrons D) neutrons E) nuclei


33) The appearance or quality of light reflected from the surface of a mineral is called __________.

A) color

B) streak

C) fluorescence

D) luster

E) sheen


34) The most abundant mineral group in Earth's crust is __________.

A) sulfides

B) carbonates

C) silicates

D) halides

E) oxides


35) The positively charged particles that compose atoms are called __________.

A) shells B) protons C) nuclei D) electrons E) neutrons


36) The definition of a mineral includes words such as __________.

A) naturally occurring and crystalline

B) clastic and mafic

C) organic and solution

D) foliated and amorphous

E) none of the above


37) Orbiting the central region of an atom are negatively charged __________.

A) electrons B) neutrons C) protons D) nuclei


38) The resistance of a mineral to abrasion is known as __________.

A) cleavage

B) resistance

C) hardness

D) fracture

E) conchoidal


39) The best-known and most important ore deposits are those that are produced from __________ solutions.

A) secondary

B) brine

C) potassium

D) carbonate

E) hydrothermal


40) The most important factor affecting the texture of an igneous rock is the __________ of the magma.

A) location

B) starting temperature

C) composition

D) final temperature

E) rate of cooling


41) The process whereby ions begin to arrange themselves into orderly patterns is called __________.

A) crystallization

B) solidification

C) packing

D) ionization

E) none of the above


42) Which one of the following terms is used by geologists to denote any rock with a high percentage of ferromagnesian minerals?

A) felsic B) masic C) mafic D) ferric E) calcic


43) The volcanic (fine-grained) equivalent of granite is __________.

A) diorite B) basalt C) tuff D) obsidian E) rhyolite


44) The slow cooling of magma results in the formation of rather __________ mineral crystals.

A) odd-shaped

B) large

C) irregular

D) small

E) colorless


45) A rock which has large crystals embedded in a matrix of smaller crystals is said to have a(n) __________ texture.

A) fragmental

B) glassy

C) aphanitic

D) phaneritic

E) none of the above


46) Which one of the following does NOT refer to the texture of an igneous rock?

A) aphanitic

B) glassy

C) phaneritic

D) porphyritic

E) clastic


47) Which one of the following is a coarse-grained intrusive igneous rock similar to gray granite, but lacking visible quartz crystals?

A) andesite B) obsidian C) basalt D) peridotite E) diorite


48) According to Bowen's reaction series, the first ferromagnesian mineral to crystallize from a typical magma is __________.

A) biotite mica

B) olivine

C) quartz

D) orthoclase

E) pyroxene


49) Igneous rocks are most often classified by their __________ and mineral composition.

A) formation B) texture C) size D) color E) shape


50) Rocks composed almost entirely of ferromagnesian minerals are often referred to as __________.

A) glassy

B) clastic

C) felsic

D) ultramafic

E) granitic


51) Which one of the following does NOT take place during the rapid cooling of magma?

A) Ions readily combine.

B) Small crystals form.

C) Ions quickly lose their motion.

D) Ions migrate long distances.

E) Large numbers of crystal nuclei form.


52) As magma migrates upward it may incorporate some of the surrounding country rock in a process called __________.

A) mixing

B) differentiation

C) acquiring

D) assimilation

E) none of the above


53) __________ are the spherical or elongated openings seen in many aphanitic rocks left by escaping gas bubbles as magma solidifies.

A) Vesicles

B) Phenocrysts

C) Inclusions

D) Clasts

E) none of the above


54) Rocks that consist of unordered atoms are referred to as __________.

A) glass

B) fragmental

C) coarse-grained

D) volatile

E) none of the above


55) The process of developing more than one rock type from a common magma is called magmatic __________.

A) streak

B) segregation

C) compounding

D) isolation

E) differentiation


56) Igneous rocks which have potassium feldspar and quartz as their primary components are said to have a(n) __________ composition.

A) clastic

B) granitic

C) basaltic

D) porphyritic

E) mafic


57) Bulbous masses associated with volcanoes that extrude highly viscous material are called __________.

A) shield volcanoes

B) cinder cones

C) composite cones

D) lava domes

E) volcanic necks


58) Magma tends to rise toward Earth's surface principally because __________.

A) water is an abundant constituent of magma

B) magma is a fluid

C) rocks become less dense when they melt

D) silica is abundant in magma

E) none of these


59) Which one of the following intrusive structures is tabular and concordant?

A) batholith B) dike C) sill D) laccolith E) stock


60) Rocks with a granitic composition begin to melt near a temperature of __________.

A) 75C B) 750C C) 1500C D) 6000C E) 3000C


61) Which one of the following statements is true regarding volcanic bombs and blocks?

A) Bombs are found closer to the volcano than blocks.

B) Bombs often have a streamlined shape.

C) Bombs are larger than blocks.

D) Blocks are semi-molten when ejected.


62) The oceanic ridge system is the major site of __________.

A) spreading center volcanism

B) formation of magma by partial melting of mantle rocks

C) formation of basaltic magma

D) all of these

E) only spreading center volcanism and formation of magma by partial melting of mantle rocks


63) Cinder cones __________.

A) have very steep slopes

B) frequently occur in groups

C) consist largely of pyroclastics

D) are usually less than 300 meters (1000 feet) high

E) all of these


64) In the upper crust, the average temperature change with depth is thought to __________ per kilometer.

A) increase 3C B) increase 30C C) decrease 3C D) decrease 30C


65) Temperatures generally encountered during volcanic eruptions are approximately __________.

A) 100C

B) 100,000C

C) 10,000C

D) 1000C

E) 1,000,000C


66) An undisturbed horizontal layer of basalt is situated between two sedimentary layers. The basalt exhibits a vesicular texture in its upper portion, while the sedimentary layer immediately below shows some metamorphic alteration. The sedimentary layer above shows no metamorphic alteration. Which one of the following statements is most likely to be true about the basalt?

A) It is a sill.

B) It is a buried lava flow.

C) It is a horizontally intruded dike.

D) It may be either a sill or a buried lava flow.


67) Vesuvius and Fujiyama are examples of a __________.

A) shield volcano

B) cinder cone

C) composite cone

D) lava dome

E) volcanic neck


68) A __________ is built almost exclusively from ejected lava fragments.

A) shield volcano

B) cinder cone

C) composite cone

D) lava dome

E) volcanic neck


69) Hawaiian rocks would be expected to have __________.

A) a granitic composition B) dark color

C) high silica content D) textures such as aa and pahoehoe


70) Which one of the following is NOT true about mechanical weathering?

A) does not change the rock's mineral composition

B) does not affect metamorphic rocks

C) produces smaller pieces

D) adds to the effectiveness of chemical weathering

E) may lead to the formation of talus slopes


71) The transfer of rock material downslope under the influence of gravity is termed __________.

A) erosion

B) hydrolysis

C) weathering

D) exfoliation

E) mass wasting


72) Chemical weathering would be most effective __________.

A) in a warm, humid climate B) in a warm, dry climate

C) in a cold, dry climate D) equally in any kind of climate


73) The incorporation and transportation of material by water, wind, or ice describes the process of __________.

A) weathering

B) sheeting

C) mass wasting

D) erosion

E) none of the above


74) Which of these factors influence the type and rate of weathering?

A) presence of joints

B) mineral content

C) topography

D) climate

E) all of the above


75) The left branch of Bowen's reaction series is called a(n) __________ reaction series because each mineral has a different crystalline structure.

A) continuous

B) changing

C) alternate

D) intermediate

E) discontinuous


76) Igneous rocks that form at the surface or as small masses within the upper crust possess a very fine-grained texture called __________.

A) phaneritic

B) conchoidal

C) fragmental

D) aphanitic

E) porphyritic


77) The intrusive equivalent of basalt is __________.

A) diorite B) obsidian C) granite D) gabbro E) andesite


78) The largest igneous intrusive body is called a __________.

A) batholith B) sill C) dike D) stock E) laccolith


79) When peridotite first begins to melt, the liquid that is produced has a composition __________.

A) similar to that of basalt

B) identical with that of peridotite

C) similar to that of andesite

D) richer in iron and magnesium than peridotite

E) similar to that of granite


80) Which of the following factors help determine whether a volcanic eruption will be violent or relatively quiescent?

A) composition of the magma

B) amount of dissolved gas in the magma

C) temperature of the magma

D) all of these

E) only the amount of dissolved gas in the magma and the temperature of the magma


81) This type of volcano is usually created when andesitic lavas are extruded.

A) shield volcano

B) cinder cone

C) composite cone

D) lava dome

E) volcanic neck


82) The gradual rounding of the corners and edges of angular blocks of rock is called __________.

A) frost wedging

B) sheeting

C) unloading

D) exfoliation

E) none of these


83) If granite and basalt outcropped in an area with a hot and humid climate, __________.

A) the granite would weather most rapidly

B) the basalt would weather most rapidly

C) both rocks would weather at the same rate

D) There is no way of knowing which rock type would weather most rapidly.


84) Which of the following is NOT considered pyroclastic debris?

A) pahoehoe B) ash C) blocks D) bombs E) cinders


85) Batholiths are typically __________.

A) extrusive

B) smaller than other types of plutons

C) aphanitic

D) composed of basalt

E) associated with mountain systems


86) The most violent volcanic activity is associated with __________.

A) fissure eruptions

B) flood basalts

C) shield volcanoes

D) cinder cones

E) composite cones


87) Igneous rocks produced in association with subduction zone volcanism generally are __________ in composition.

A) ultramafic B) basaltic

C) andesitic D) both basaltic and ultramafic


88) Which of the following lists magma types in order of decreasing viscosity (i.e., the most viscous listed first)?

A) granitic, basaltic, andesitic

B) granitic, andesitic, basaltic

C) basaltic, granitic, andesitic

D) andesitic, granitic, basaltic

E) basaltic, andesitic, granitic


89) The Hawaiian Islands are associated with __________ volcanism.

A) intraplate

B) subduction zone

C) spreading center

D) geothermal

E) intercrustal


90) The most important mechanical weathering process is __________.

A) root wedging

B) unloading

C) hydrolysis

D) frost action

E) none of the above


91) Sheeting __________.

A) may produce an exfoliation dome

B) is commonly associated with large bodies of granite

C) creates concentric slabs of rock

D) is caused primarily by unloading

E) all of the above


92) This region exhibits extensive flood basalts.

A) Rocky Mountains

B) Mt. Rainier

C) Columbia Plateau

D) Yosemite National Park

E) Yellowstone National Park


93) The most abundant gas associated with volcanic activity is __________.

A) carbon dioxide

B) water vapor

C) sulfur oxide

D) chlorine

E) nitrogen


94) Large, dome-shaped volcanoes consisting primarily of basaltic lava flows are called __________.

A) shield volcano

B) cinder cone

C) composite cone

D) lava dome

E) volcanic neck


95) Which one of the following is not related to chemical weathering?

A) hydrolysis

B) frost wedging

C) decomposition

D) solution

E) oxidation


96) A lens-shaped mass emplaced in a near surface environment is termed a __________.

A) batholith B) stock C) sill D) laccolith E) dike


97) The rocks in this region are part of a batholith.

A) Yellowstone National Park

B) the Grand Tetons

C) Texas Panhandle

D) Yosemite National Park

E) Mt. Rainier


98) At which one of these locations would frost wedging be most effective?

A) Amazon Basin of Brazil

B) Arctic coast of Alaska

C) Chicago, Illinois

D) Frost wedging should be equally effective at all of these sites.


99) The Cascade Range in the western United States is associated with __________ volcanism.

A) intraplate

B) geothermal

C) subduction zone

D) intercrustal

E) spreading center


100) A region of extensive pyroclastic flows is __________.

A) Hawaiian Islands

B) the Columbia Plateau

C) Grand Teton National Park

D) Yosemite National Park

E) Yellowstone National Park


MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) E


2) C


3) A


4) A


5) E


6) D


7) D


8) D


9) C


10) C


11) B


12) B


13) D


14) D


15) A


16) C


17) A


18) B


19) D


20) D


21) A


22) B


23) A


24) D


25) B


26) E


27) C


28) C


29) B


30) C


31) E


32) D


33) D


34) C


35) B


36) A


37) A


38) C


39) E


40) E


41) A


42) C


43) E


44) B


45) E


46) E


47) E


48) B


49) B


50) D


51) D


52) D


53) A


54) A


55) E


56) B


57) D


58) C


59) C


60) B


61) B


62) D


63) E


64) B


65) D


66) B


67) C


68) B


69) B


70) B


71) E


72) A


73) D


74) E


75) E


76) D


77) D


78) A


79) A


80) D


81) C


82) E


83) B


84) A


85) E


86) E


87) C


88) B


89) A


90) D


91) E


92) C


93) B


94) A


95) B


96) D


97) D


98) C


99) C


100) E